UNITED STATES
ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY
BEFORE THE ADMINISTRATOR
IN THE MATTER OF )
)
MORTON INTERNATIONAL, INC., ) DOCKET NOS.EPCRA/[CERCLA]-VII-
) 96E-218
) CWA-VII-97-W-0008
RESPONDENT )
ORDER ON COMPLAINANT'S MOTION FOR PARTIAL
ACCELERATED DECISION AS TO LIABILITY
ORDER SCHEDULING HEARING
On October 2, 1997, the United States Environmental Protection
Agency ("Complainant" or "EPA") filed a Motion for Partial
Accelerated Decision as to Liability on all three (3) counts in the
Complaint. The Respondent opposes the motion. The Complainant's
motion is denied as to Counts I and II in the Complaint and is
granted as to Count III in the Complaint.
Background
This proceeding arises under the authority of Section 109 of
the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and
Liability Act ("CERCLA"), as amended, 42 U.S.C. § 9609, Section 325
of the Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act
("EPCRA"), 42 U.S.C. § 11045 (Supp. IV 1986), and Section 311(b)(6)
of the Federal Water Pollution Control Act, commonly referred to as
the Clean Water Act ("CWA"), as amended, 33 U.S.C. § 1321(b)(6).
These proceedings are governed by the Consolidated Rules of
Practice Governing the Administrative Assessment of Civil Penalties
and the Revocation or Suspension of Permits (the "Rules of
Practice"), 40 C.F.R. §§ 22.01 et seq.
In the Complaint, the Complainant alleges one (1) violation of
the emergency notification requirements of Section 103(a) of
CERCLA, 42 U.S.C. § 9603 (Count I), one (1) violation of the
emergency notification requirements of Section 304 of EPCRA, 42
U.S.C. § 1104 (Count II), and one (1) violation of Section 311 of
the CWA, 33 U.S.C. § 1321. Specifically, the Complainant alleges
that on February 4, 1996, there was a release of sodium hydroxide
in excess of the reportable quantity designated by 40 C.F.R. §§
302.4 and 117.3 from the Respondent's onshore facility into the
Arkansas River (Count III). The Complainant proposes a civil
administrative penalty of $6,900 for this alleged violation. The
Complaint further alleges that the Respondent failed to immediately
report this release of sodium hydroxide to federal, state, and
local authorities (Counts I and II). The total proposed penalty
for both these alleged notification violations is $33,000. The
total proposed penalty on all three Counts in the Complaint is
$39,900.
Standard For Accelerated Decision
The Complainant has filed a motion for partial accelerated
decision pursuant to 40 C.F.R. § 22.20, the regulation governing
accelerated decisions. Section 22.20(a) provides, in pertinent
part, as follows:
The Presiding Officer,[(1)] upon motion of any party
or sua sponte, may at any time render an accelerated
decision in favor of the complainant or the respondent as
to all or any part of the proceeding, without further
hearing or upon such limited additional evidence, such as
affidavits, as he may require, if no genuine issue of
material fact exists and a party is entitled to judgment
as a matter of law, as to all or any part of the
proceeding. (emphasis added)(2)
Motions for accelerated decision under 40 C.F.R. § 22.20(a)
are akin to motions for summary judgment under Rule 56 of the
Federal Rules of Civil Procedure ("FRCP").(3) Rule 56(c) of the FRCP
provides that summary judgment "shall be rendered forthwith if the
pleadings, depositions, answers to interrogatories, and admissions
on file, together with the affidavits, if any, show that there is
no genuine issue of any material fact and that the moving party is
entitled to a judgment as a matter of law" (emphasis added). Thus,
by analogy, Rule 56 provides guidance for adjudicating motions for
accelerated decision. See In the Matter of CWM Chemical Service,
Docket No. TSCA-PCB-91-0213, 1995 TSCA Lexis 13, TSCA Appeal 93-1
(EAB, May 15, 1995).
Therefore, I look to federal court decisions construing Rule
56 of the FRCP for guidance in applying 40 C.F.R. § 22.20(a) to the
adjudication of motions for accelerated decisions. In interpreting
Rule 56(c), the United States Supreme Court has held that the party
moving for summary judgment has the burden of showing the absence
of a genuine issue as to any material fact and that the evidentiary
material proffered by the moving party in support of its motion
must be viewed in the light most favorable to the opposing party.
See Anderson v. Liberty Lobby, Inc., 477 U.S. 242, 248 (1985);
Adickes v. S. H. Kress & Co., 398 U.S. 144, 157 (1970). Further,
the judge must draw all reasonable inferences from the evidentiary
material in favor of the party opposing the motion for summary
judgment. See Anderson, supra, at 255; Adickes, supra, at 158-159;
see also Cone v. Longmont United Hospital Assoc., 14 F.3d 526, 528
(10th Cir. 1994).
In assessing materiality for summary judgment purposes, the
Court has found that a factual dispute is material where, under the
governing law, it might affect the outcome of the proceeding.
Anderson, supra at 248; Adickes, supra, at 158-159. The
substantive law identifies which facts are material. Id.
The Court has found that a factual dispute is genuine if the
evidence is such that a reasonable finder of fact could return a
verdict in favor of the nonmoving party. Id. Further, in
Anderson, the Court ruled that in determining whether a genuine
issue of fact exists, the judge must decide whether a finder of
fact could reasonably find for the nonmoving party under the
evidentiary standards in a particular proceeding. There must be an
incorporation of the evidentiary standard in the summary judgment
determination. Anderson, supra, at 252. In other words, when
determining whether or not there is a genuine factual dispute, the
judge must make such inquiry within the context of the applicable
evidentiary standard of proof for that proceeding.
Once the party moving for summary judgment meets its burden of
showing the absence of genuine issues of material fact, Rule 56(e)
then requires the opposing party to offer any countering
evidentiary material or to file a Rule 56(f) affidavit.(4) Rule
56(e) states: "When a motion for summary judgment is made and
supported as provided in this rule, an adverse party may not rest
upon the mere allegations or denials of his pleading, but must set
forth specific facts showing there is a genuine issue for trial."
However, if the moving party fails to carry its burden to show that
it is entitled to summary judgment under established principles,
then no defense is required. Adickes, supra, at 156.
The type of evidentiary material that a moving party must
present to properly support a motion for summary judgment or that
an opposing party must proffer to defeat a properly supported
motion for summary judgment has been examined by the Court. See
Celotex Corp. v. Catrett, 477 U.S. 317 (1986); see also Anderson,
supra; Adickes, supra. The Court points out that Rule 56(c) itself
provides that the decision on a motion for summary judgment must be
based on the pleadings, depositions, answers to interrogatories,
and admissions on file, together with affidavits, if any, submitted
in support or opposition to the motion. With regard to the
sufficiency of the evidentiary material needed to defeat a properly
supported motion for summary judgment, the Court has found that the
nonmoving party must present "affirmative evidence" and that it
cannot defeat the motion without offering "any significant
probative evidence tending to support" its pleadings. Anderson,
supra, at 256 (quoting First National Bank of Arizona v. Cities
Service Company, 391 U.S. 253, 290 (1968)).
More specifically, the Court has ruled that the mere
allegation of a factual dispute will not defeat a properly
supported motion for summary judgment as Rule 56(e) requires the
opposing party to go beyond the pleadings. Celotex, supra at 322;
Adickes, supra. The Court has noted, however, that there is no
requirement that the moving party support its motion with
affidavits negating the opposing party's claim or that the opposing
party produce evidence in a form that would be admissible at trial
in order to avoid summary judgment. Celotex, supra, at 323-324.
The parties may move for summary judgment or successfully defeat
summary judgment without supporting affidavits provided that other
evidence referenced in Rule 56(c) adequately supports its position.
The regulation governing motions for accelerated decision
under 40 C.F.R. § 22.20(a) does not define or provide examples to
illustrate the meaning of the phrase "genuine issue of material
fact," nor does it provide significant guidance as to the type of
evidence needed to support or defeat a motion for accelerated
decision. Section 22.20(a) states, in pertinent part, that the
Presiding Officer may render an accelerated decision "without
further hearing or upon any limited additional evidence, such as
affidavits, as he may require, if no genuine issue of material fact
exists and a party is entitled to judgment as a matter of law." As
an adjunct to this regulation, I note that under another governing
regulation, a party's response to a written motion, which would
include a motion for accelerated decision, "shall be accompanied by
any affidavit, certificate, [or] other evidence" relied upon. 40
C.F.R. § 22.16(b).
Inasmuch as the inquiry of whether there is a genuine issue of
material fact in the context of an accelerated decision is quite
similar to that in the context of a summary judgment and in the
absence of significant instruction from the regulation governing
accelerated decisions, I believe that the standard for that inquiry
as enunciated by the Court in Celotex, Anderson, and Adickes is
applicable in the accelerated decision context.(5) Compare In the
Matter of Mayaguez Regional Sewage Treatment Plant, NPDES Appeal
No. 92-23, 4 EAD 772, 781 (EAB, Aug. 23, 1993) (wherein the
Environmental Appeals Board ("EAB") adopted the standard for summary
judgment articulated by the Court in Anderson to determine whether
there is a genuine issue of material fact warranting an evidentiary
hearing under 40 C.F.R. § 124.74 for the issuance of a permit under
Section 301(h) of the CWA).
The evidentiary standard of proof in the matter before me, as
in all other cases of administrative assessment of civil penalties
governed by the Rules of Practice, is a "preponderance of the
evidence." 40 C.F.R. § 22.24. Thus, by analogy, in determining
whether or not there is a genuine factual dispute, I, as the judge
and finder of fact, must consider whether I could reasonably find
for the nonmoving party under the "preponderance of the evidence"
standard.(6) In addressing the threshold question of the propriety
of a motion for accelerated decision, my function is not to weigh
the evidence and determine the truth of the matter but to determine
whether there is a genuine issue for an evidentiary hearing. See
Anderson, supra, at 249.
Accordingly, by analogy, a party moving for accelerated
decision must establish through the pleadings, depositions, answers
to interrogatories, and admissions on file, together with any
affidavits, the absence of genuine issues of material fact and that
it is entitled to judgment as a matter of law by the preponderance
of the evidence. In this regard, the moving party must
demonstrate, by a preponderance of the evidence, that no reasonable
presiding officer could not find for the nonmoving party. On the
other hand, a party opposing a properly supported motion for
accelerated decision must demonstrate the existence of a genuine
issue of material fact by proffering significant probative evidence
from which a reasonable presiding officer could find in that
party's favor by a preponderance of the evidence.
Discussion
In the instant matter before me, the Complainant has filed a
motion for partial accelerated decision as to liability pursuant to
40 C.F.R. § 22.20(a). The Complainant argues that it is entitled
to judgment on liability as a matter of law on all three counts in
the Complaint because no genuine issue of material fact exists
regarding the Respondent's failure to comply with CERCLA, EPCRA,
and the CWA as alleged in the Complaint. The Respondent opposes
the motion for partial accelerated decision as to liability on all
three counts in the Complaint.
Count III
Specifically, the Complainant asserts that the Respondent, in
its Answer to the Complaint, admitted all elements of the violation
of Section 311 of the CWA as set forth in Count III in the
Complaint and, therefore, the Complainant is entitled to
accelerated decision on the issue of liability as to Count III.
The Respondent asserts that it has admitted its "responsibility" for
the release of a reportable quantity of sodium hydroxide as alleged
in Count III of the Complaint and, therefore, there is no need for
an accelerated decision as to the Complainant's claims under the
CWA (Count III). Respondent's Memorandum in Opposition to EPA's
Motion for Partial Accelerated Decision ("Respondent's Memorandum")
at p. 2. I disagree with this assertion by the Respondent and fail
to understand the reasoning behind the assertion. Although
granting the motion for partial accelerated decision as to
liability on Count III may appear to be stating the obvious, such
action is appropriate and necessary under the governing regulation.
The purpose of an accelerated decision is to eliminate the
unnecessary adjudication of undisputed facts and issues and to
narrow the facts and issues for determination on a full evidentiary
hearing.
In the Respondent's Answer to the Complaint, the Respondent
admits the following facts: The Respondent is a person as defined
by Section 101 (21) of CERCLA, Section 329 (7) of EPCRA, and
Section 311(a)(7) of the CWA; at all times relevant hereto, the
Respondent owned and operated and was in charge of Morton Salt,
Division of Morton International, Inc. located at 1000 Morton Road,
South Hutchinson, Kansas ("Facility"); the Facility is a facility
as defined by Section 101 (9) of CERCLA and Section 329 (4) of
EPCRA; and the Facility is an onshore facility within the meaning
of Section 311(a)(10) of the CWA. Answer at ¶¶ 2, 12. The
Respondent admits that sodium hydroxide is a hazardous substance as
defined by Section 101 (4) of CERCLA and Section 311 of the CWA,
with a reportable quantity of 1,000 pounds, as designated by 40
C.F.R. §§ 302.4, 116.4, and 117.3. Answer at ¶¶ 2, 12. The
Respondent, in its Answer to the Complaint, further admits that
there was a release of sodium hydroxide from its Facility in excess
of the reportable quantity into an outfall stream that flows into
the Arkansas River between 6:05 a.m. and 6:25 a.m on February 4,
1996.(7) Answer at ¶¶ 3, 4, 12, 13.
With regard to Count III in the Complaint, no material facts
are disputed and the Respondent has admitted its liability.
Accordingly, the Complainant's motion for partial accelerated
decision as to liability on Count III is Granted.
Counts I and II
Count I in the Complaint alleges that the Respondent did not
immediately notify the National Response Center ("NRC") of the
release of sodium hydroxide in question as soon as it had knowledge
of the release in violation of Section 103(a) of CERCLA. Count II
in the Complaint alleges that the Respondent did not immediately
notify the State Emergency Response Commission ("SERC") or the Local
Emergency Planning Committee ("LEPC") of the release in violation
of Section 304 of EPCRA. The Respondent maintains that it timely
notified all appropriate agencies of the release of sodium
hydroxide under both CERCLA and EPCRA.
First, I turn to the statutory provisions of CERCLA and EPCRA
regarding the emergency release notification requirements. Section
103(a) of CERCLA provides that any person in charge of an onshore
facility shall, as soon as he has knowledge of any release of a
listed hazardous substance from such facility in a reportable
quantity, immediately notify the NRC of such release. Sodium
hydroxide is listed as a "hazardous substance" for purposes of
CERCLA emergency notification requirements and the reportable
quantity for sodium hydroxide is 1,000 pounds. Therefore, in the
instant matter, the emergency notification requirements of Section
103(a) of CERCLA are applicable.
Section 304(a)(3) of EPCRA provides that if a release of a
substance which is not on the list of extremely hazardous
substances referred to in Section 302(a)(2) of EPCRA occurs at a
facility at which a hazardous chemical is produced, used, or stored
and such release requires notification under Section 103(a) of
CERCLA for a substance for which a reportable quantity has been
established under CERCLA, the owner or operator of such facility
shall give notice immediately after the release to the community
emergency coordinator for the local emergency planning committees
for any area likely to be affected by the release and to the State
emergency planning commission on any State likely to be affected by
the release. This notification requirement does not apply to any
release which results in exposure to persons solely within the
sites on which a facility is located. Section 103(a)(4) of EPCRA.
Sodium hydroxide is not included on the list of extremely
hazardous substances published by the Administrator pursuant to
Section 302(a)(2) of EPCRA but, as noted above, a release of sodium
hydroxide at a quantity of 1,000 pounds or more requires
notification under Section 103(a) of CERCLA. The Facility in the
instant matter is a facility at which a hazardous chemical is
produced, used, or stored and sodium hydroxide is a substance for
which a reportable quantity has been established under section
102(a) of CERCLA. Accordingly, the emergency notification
requirements of Section 304(b) of EPCRA are for application in the
instant matter.
With regard to Counts I and II in the Complaint, the
Respondent acknowledges that it had a statutory duty to report the
above described release of sodium hydroxide to the proper federal,
state, and local authorities under CERCLA and EPCRA. Respondent's
Memorandum at 2. Both parties agree that the only remaining issue
on motion for partial accelerated decision as to liability is
whether the Respondent "immediately" notified the appropriate
agencies under CERCLA and EPCRA.
As both parties in the instant matter point out in their
supporting memorandums on motion for partial accelerated decision,
the EAB has held that the duty to immediately report a release
under EPCRA, as well as CERCLA, arises as soon as the facility
personnel have knowledge that a reportable release has occurred, or
should know of such a release. In re Mobil Oil Corporation, EPCRA
Appeal No. 94-2, 5 EAD 490, 509 (EAB, Sept. 29, 1994); In re
Genicom Corp., EPCRA-III-057 (ALJ, July 16, 1992), aff'd In re
Genicom Corp., EPCRA Appeal No. 92-2, 4 EAD 426 (EAB, Dec. 15,
1992); 52 Fed. Reg. 13,378, 13,393 (Apr. 22, 1987) (explaining that
"knowledge" of a release under EPCRA includes constructive knowledge
as well as actual knowledge). As noted by the EAB in Mobil Oil
Corp., "knowledge" does not necessarily mean conclusive knowledge
of the exact quantity of a release. As the EAB in Mobil Oil Corp.
quoted the Administrative Law Judge ("ALJ") from the ALJ's decision
in Genicom:
What is at issue is when did Genicom have enough
information that it could reasonably be said that it knew
that the releases were at or above reportable quantities
even though it did not know the exact quantities
released. A company should be given some latitude about
how it interprets the information it has. At some point,
however, the nature of the information can be such that
the failure to give notice is indicative of the company
not knowing the requirements or being hostile or
indifferent to them, rather than of any uncertainty that
a release in reportable quantities had taken place.
Genicom, EPCRA-III-057 at 13.
The EAB noted, however, that EPCRA does not require reporting
before a facility has some degree of certainty that a reportable
release has occurred. Mobil Oil Corp., EPCRA Appeal No. 94-2, at
512. The EAB rejected the notion that facilities are free to place
the acquisition of certainty on a timetable that is convenient for
the facility.
In support of their opposing positions on motion for
accelerated decision, both parties' memorandums in the instant
matter refer to the Chief ALJ's interpretation of constructive
knowledge as set forth in In re Thoro Products Co., EPCRA Docket
No. VII-90-04 (May 19, 1992).(8) In that decision, Chief ALJ Frazier
stated:
Constructive knowledge neither indicates nor requires
actual knowledge but means knowledge of such
circumstances as would ordinarily lead upon
investigation, in the exercise of reasonable diligence
which a prudent person ought to exercise, to a knowledge
of actual facts..... The failure to know what could have
been known in the exercise of due diligence amounts to
knowledge in the eyes of the law.
Thoro, EPCRA Docket No. VII-90-04.
Thus, the determinative questions before me in the instant
matter are when did the Respondent have knowledge of the release
and was the notice of the release by the Respondent to federal,
state, and local authorities "immediate" as required by CERCLA and
EPCRA. Initially, I note that in the Complaint, the Complainant
alleges that the Respondent discovered the release at approximately
6:30 a.m. on February 4, 1996, but the Complainant does not allege
the approximate time the Respondent had knowledge of the release.
Complaint at ¶ 14. On motion for partial accelerated decision, the
Complainant argues that the Respondent had actual knowledge of the
release at 9:00 a.m. Complainant's Memorandum in Support of Motion
for Partial Accelerated Decision ("Complainant's Memorandum") at p.
2. In its Answer, the Respondent maintains that it did not have
knowledge of the release until 10:45 a.m. Answer at ¶¶ 4-5.
Both parties agree that the release of sodium hydroxide in
question occurred on February 4, 1996, from approximately 6:05 a.m.
to 6:25 a.m. Complaint at ¶ 13. Answer at ¶ 3-5. Both parties
agree that on the day of the spill, February 4, 1996, at about
11:20 a.m., the Respondent advised the Kansas Department of
Emergency Preparedness (the SERC for Kansas) of the release, and
then at about 11:30 a.m. the Respondent notified the NRC. Answer
at ¶¶ 5, 10; Respondent's Memorandum at 3, 9; Complainant's
Memorandum at pgs. 2, 10, 14. The Respondent claims that several
other state agencies were notified between 11:30 a.m. and 12:30
p.m. Answer at ¶ 5; Respondent's Memorandum at 3.
The Complainant claims that the Reno County Emergency
Preparedness Coordinator was not notified until 12:15 p.m. but the
Respondent claims that notice to the Reno County Emergency
Preparedness Coordinator was completed by 11:55 a.m. Answer ¶¶ 5,
10; Complainant's Memorandum at 14. In addition, the Respondent
claims that on February 4, 1996, the South Hutchinson Police
Department was on-site at the Facility by 11:00 a.m. Answer at ¶
5. This claim is attested to by E. M. Willse, the manufacturing
manager at the Respondent's Facility, in an affidavit dated
October 23, 1997, which was proffered by the Respondent in support
of its opposition to the motion for accelerated decision.
Although the parties do not dispute the facts of what
transpired during the crucial period between the release of sodium
hydroxide, which ended at about 6:25 a.m., and the notification of
the SERC at 11:20 a.m. and the NRC at 11:30 a.m., they disagree as
to the reasonable inferences that may be drawn from these
undisputed facts. The undisputed facts are as follows: On Sunday,
February 4, 1996, at 6:30 a.m. the Respondent's production manager
reported steam rising from the pipeline area at the Facility and at
approximately 7:00 a.m. the Respondent's utility operator
discovered a broken pipeline. Answer at ¶ 5. Apparently, the
break in the pipeline was due to subfreezing temperatures.
Following several telephone calls to the on call foreman, the
production foreman, the manufacturing manager, and the Facility
manager, the manufacturing manager, Mr. Ed Willse, arrived at the
Facility at approximately 8:00 a.m. and convened an internal
investigation. Testing of the water leaving the Facility at 8:00
a.m. showed the pH was 11.4. Complainant's proposed Exhibit 2, p.
8. Facility production records showed that shortly before the
discovery of the broken pipeline sodium hydroxide had been pumped
to a 400,000 gallon tank of brine to treat out the magnesium in the
brine. In order to determine whether any sodium hydroxide pumped
had been released and the quantity thereof, Mr. Willse ordered a
chemical analysis of the brine in the tank to determine how much of
the sodium hydroxide pumped had reached the brine treating tank.
While quality control technicians performed this task, Mr. Willse
inspected the one-half mile length of the outfall path to the
Arkansas River for signs of the sodium hydroxide and sampled the
outfall for pH. At approximately 9:00 a.m. when Mr. Willse
returned to the Facility, the analysis of the brine in the brine
tank showed that little or no sodium hydroxide made it to the tank.
Answer at ¶ 5.
Shortly after 9:00 a.m., the Facility's gas company informed
the Respondent that gas to the Facility was being curtailed, and
the Respondent claims that this unusual event temporarily postponed
the Respondent's internal investigation. According to the
Respondent, the decision was made to continue production by
switching to a more expensive fuel, in part, in order to continue
the discharge of 3,800 gallons of cooling water per minute in an
attempt to further dilute any sodium hydroxide in the outfall
ditch. The Respondent claims that at approximately 9:30 a.m.
Mr. Willse resumed his investigation by performing calculations to
determine how much sodium hydroxide was released. Answer at ¶ 5.
Reportedly, Mr. Willse's calculations included data on how much
sodium hydroxide was pumped, how much was captured on the property,
and how much was neutralized by the magnesium in the carrier
effluent before discharge. As part of Mr. Willse's assessment, he
drove to a bridge located downstream of the outfall to sample the
Arkansas River directly. Answer at ¶ 5.
According to the Respondent, Mr. Willse completed his
investigation at approximately 10:45 a.m. and Mr. Willse telephoned
the Respondent's manager of environmental affairs in Chicago,
Illinois, to "confer" with him. Answer at ¶ 5. After the
environmental manager agreed with the results of the investigation
and confirmed that proper notification was required, notification
was commenced. As noted above, the Respondent claims that the
local police authorities arrived at the Facility by 11;00 a.m., the
SERC was notified at 11:20 a.m., and the NRC was notified at 11:30
a.m. Answer at ¶ 5.
The Complainant argues that based on the test results showing
that the pH level of the water leaving the Facility at 8:00 a.m.
was 11.4 and the analysis completed at 9:00 a.m. showing that
little or no sodium hydroxide made it to the brine tank, the
Respondent had knowledge of a release of a reportable quantity at
9:00 a.m. Complainant's Memorandum at 10. The Respondent counters
that this conclusion on the part of the Complainant is erroneous
and rests upon the lack of understanding of plant processes and the
relevant facts. Respondent's Memorandum at p. 6. The Respondent
argues that the Complainant incorrectly assumed that the lack of
sodium hydroxide in the brine tank automatically meant that the
sodium hydroxide had been released to the environment. Rather, the
Respondent contends that Mr. Willse correctly recognized that
further data was required to determine the amount of sodium
hydroxide released to the environment. The Respondent admits that
at 9:00 a.m. the Respondent knew that some sodium hydroxide had not
reached its destination but it does not follow that the Respondent
knew that a reportable quantity of sodium hydroxide was released
into the environment. Respondent's Memorandum at pgs. 6-7. The
Respondent points out that pursuant to the ALJ's decision in
Genicom, EPCRA-III-057 at 13, the source should be given some
latitude in interpreting the available information.
At this juncture, I believe that the Respondent has adequately
raised a genuine issue of material fact that only can be properly
adjudicated following a full evidentiary hearing. The Respondent,
through the affidavit of Mr. Willse, has raised under the
preponderance of the evidence standard a genuine dispute of
material fact as to the issue of when the Respondent had knowledge
of a release of sodium hydroxide in a reportable quantity. In
particular, I note that under the standard for adjudicating motions
for accelerated decisions, discussed above, the evidentiary
material proffered by the moving party must be viewed in the light
most favorable to the opposing party and all reasonable inferences
from the evidentiary material must be drawn in favor of the
nonmoving party. I emphasize that in making this threshold
determination, I have not weighed the evidence and determined the
truth of the matter but have simply determined that the Respondent
has adequately raised a genuine issue of material fact for
evidentiary hearing. Further, I note that the file before me does
not properly establish the identity of the LEPC in this matter or
the time that the LEPC was notified of the release of sodium
hydroxide in question.
The Complainant also argues that as a matter of law, a delay
of about two and one-half hours in reporting the release is not
"immediate" notification as contemplated under CERCLA and EPCRA.
In support of this argument, the Complainant cites the legislative
history of CERCLA and EPCRA. A Legislative History of the
Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act of 1986 (Public Law
99-499) Vol. 2 at 1038 (Comm. Print 1990); see also In re Mobil Oil
Corp., Docket Nos. EPCRA Appeal No. 91-0122, 91-0123, at 45 (1992)
(Interlocutory Order Granting Complainant's Cross-Motion for
Partial Accelerated Decision); Genicom, EPCRA Appeal No. 92-2, 4
EAD 426 (EAB, Dec. 15, 1992). I note that legislative history,
although an excellent source for guidance, is not authoritative.
Moreover, I do not find legislative history to be authoritative
when determining whether a party moving for accelerated decision
has established that it is entitled to judgment as a matter of law.
The Complainant also cites Mobil Oil Corp., EPCRA Appeal No.
94-2, 5 EAD 490 (EAB, Sept. 29, 1994) and Genicom, EPCRA-III-057,
for the proposition that a delay of two and one-half hours fails to
meet the requirement for immediate notice. These cited cases
involved reporting delays of 3 days and 2 hours, respectively. I
note that the Genicom decision, although an excellent source for
guidance, is not precedent and that the issue of whether the
reporting delays negated a finding of "immediate notice" was not
directly addressed by the EAB on appeal in precedent decision.
Thus, based on the arguments and briefs on file, I do not find that
the Complainant has sufficiently established that it is entitled to
judgment as a matter of law for accelerated decision purposes.
Conclusion
In view of the foregoing determinations that the Respondent
has adequately raised a genuine issue of material fact and that the
file before me does not establish that the Complainant is entitled
to judgment as a matter of law, I conclude that the Complainant's
Motion for Partial Accelerated Decision as to liability on Counts
I and II in the Complaint must be denied. 40 C.F.R. § 22.20(a).
No genuine issue of material fact exists as to liability as
alleged in Count III in the Complaint. The Respondent has admitted
liability as to Count III in the Complaint and the Complainant is
entitled to judgment as a matter of law as to Count III. The
Complainant's motion for partial accelerated decision as to
liability on Count III is granted. 40 C.F.R. § 22.20(a).
Orders
The Complainant's Motion for Partial Accelerated Decision as
to Liability on Counts I and II is Denied.
The Complainant's Motion for Partial Accelerated Decision as
to Liability on Count III is Granted.
The Hearing in this matter will be held beginning at 9:30 a.m.
on Wednesday, April 8, 1998, in Kansas City, Kansas, continuing if
necessary on April 9 and 10, 1998.(9) The Regional Hearing Clerk
will make appropriate arrangements for a courtroom and retain a
stenographic reporter. The parties will be notified of the exact
location and of other procedures pertinent to the hearing when
those arrangements are complete.
IF ANY PARTY DOES NOT INTEND TO ATTEND THE HEARING OR HAS GOOD
CAUSE FOR NOT BEING ABLE TO ATTEND THE HEARING AS SCHEDULED, IT
SHALL NOTIFY THE UNDERSIGNED AT THE EARLIEST POSSIBLE MOMENT.
Original signed by undersigned
______________________________
Barbara A. Gunning
Administrative Law Judge
Dated: 12-12-97
Washington, DC
1. The term "Presiding Officer" means the Administrative Law
Judge designated by the Chief Administrative Law Judge to serve as
Presiding Officer. 40 C.F.R. § 22.03(a).
2. 40 C.F.R. § 22.20(a) further provides: "the Presiding
Officer, upon motion of the respondent, may at any time dismiss an
action without further hearing or upon such limited evidence as he
requires, on the basis of failure to establish a prima facie case
or other grounds which show no right to relief on the part of the
complainant."
3. The Federal Rules of Civil Procedure are not binding on
administrative agencies but many times these rules provide useful
and instructive guidance in applying the Rules of Practice. See
Oak Tree Farm Dairy, Inc. v. Block, 544 F. Supp. 1351, 1356 n. 3
(E.D.N.Y. 1982); In re Wego Chemical & Mineral Corporation, TSCA
Appeal No. 92-4, 4 EAD 513 at 13 n. 10 (EAB, Feb. 24, 1993).
4. Rule 56(f) states:
(f) When Affidavits are Unavailable. Should it
appear from the affidavits of a party opposing the motion
that the party cannot for reasons stated present by
affidavit facts essential to justify the party's
opposition, the court may refuse the application for
judgment or may order a continuance to permit affidavits
to be obtained or depositions to be taken or discovery to
be had or may make such other order as is just.
5. An accelerated decision, as a summary judgment, may be
rendered on the issue of liability alone although there is a
genuine issue as to the amount of damages. Rule 56© FRCP; 40
C.F.R. 22.20(a).
6. Under the governing Rules of Practice, an Administrative
Law Judge serves as the decisionmaker as well as the fact finder.
See 40 C.F.R. §§ 22.04(c), 22.20, 22.26.
7. The Complaint does not specify the amount of sodium
hydroxide in excess of the reportable quantity allegedly released,
but the Respondent admits, in its Answer, that the amount of sodium
hydroxide released exceeded the reportable quantity. Answer at ¶
13. In Complainant's proposed Exhibit 4, the Respondent reports
that the amount of sodium hydroxide released was 6,898 pounds, and
the Respondent does not dispute this amount.
8. The EAB's decision in Mobil Oil Corp., supra, and the ALJ's
decision in Thoro Prods., supra, concerned the release of an
extremely hazardous substance under EPCRA. The instant matter
concerns the release of a hazardous substance under EPCRA.
9. Count III of the Complaint proposes the assessment of a
civil administrative penalty in the amount of $6,900 under Section
311(b)(6)(B)(ii) of the CWA (class II civil penalty). A hearing on
the record in accordance with Section 554 of Title 5 shall be held
in class II civil penalty cases. Sections 311(b)(6)(C)(I) and (ii)
of the CWA provide that before issuing an order assessing a class
II civil penalty, the Administrator shall provide public notice of
and reasonable opportunity to comment on the proposed issuance of
such order and that any person who comments on a proposed
assessment of a class II penalty shall be given notice of any
hearing and of the order assessing such penalty. The file before
me contains proof of the public notice but there is no information
as to whether any comments were received.
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